AIR-LAW

AIR LAW

1. Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?

a, b, c, e, f (Certificate of aircraft registration, Certificate of airworthiness, Airworthiness review certificate, Airplane logbook, Appropriate papers for every crew member)

2. Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions?

Restricted area

3. Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found?

AIP

4. A bilateral agreement under international law can be declared between…

two states

5. A multilateral agreement under international law can be declared between…

more than two states

6. What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA e.g. Part-FCL, Part-MED?

They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states

7. Some of the objectives of EUROCONTROL are…

air traffic control ATC over many Northern European countries in the upper airspace and air traffic flow management ATFM

8. Which validity does the Certificate of Airworthiness have?

Unlimited

9. What is the meaning of the abbreviation ARC?

Airworthiness Review Certificate

10. What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1?

Flight crew licensing

11. A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is only valid in…

the country where the license was issued

12. What is the period of validity of a private pilot license PPL?

Unlimited

13. What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night flights?

At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

14. The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is…

12 Months

15. In which way is a SEP land rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight time?

A proficiency check with an examiner

16. The possession of a european PPLA entitles the holder to…

act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instructor

17. What is the meaning of the abbreviation BCMT?

The center of the sun is 6 degrees below the horizon and dawn is imminent (Beginning of Civil Morning Twilight)

18. What has to be done before entering a TMZ?

Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S

19. What is the meaning of the abbreviation SERA?

Standardized European Rules of the Air

20. What is the meaning of the abbreviation IFR?

Instrument Flight Rules

21. A flight is called a visual flight, if the…

flight is conducted under visual flight rules

22. What is the meaning of the abbreviation IMC?

Instrument meteorological conditions

23. Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?

An approach without landing at an aerodrome

24. A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite at the same altitude. Which one has to divert?

Both have to divert to the right

25. What is the difference between crossing and passing regarding two aeroplane?

When crossing, the angle between the two aeroplanes is more than 70, when passing, it is smaller

26. What is the minimum height above an industrial site working with inflammables and explosives?

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft

27. Which sequence is correct with regard to the rules of priority? (Start with LOWEST priority)

b, a, c, d (Engine-driven -> Glider -> Hang-glider -> Balloon)

28. Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one has to divert?

The aircraft which has the other on its right

29. While taxiing, two engine-driven aeroplanes face each other direct on opposite courses. Which one has to divert?

Both have to divert to the right

30. What has to be considered when entering an RMZ?

To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact

31. The term ceiling is defined as the…

height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft

32. What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C at and above FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?

8 km

33. The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is…

5000 m

34. What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace B?

Vertically 1000 ft, horizontally 1.5 km

35. What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?

5000 m

36. What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight?

Visual reference to the terrain

37. Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft, followed by a smooth turn to the left?

Follow me

38. Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

You may proceed

39. The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa…

when climbing above the transition altitude

40. During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be…

1013.25 hPa

41. What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?

To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude

42. Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?

7600

43. Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes?

A, C, S

44. A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a…

mode C or S transponder

45. The IDENT button on the transponder has to be used…

only once after a direct request by the ATC

46. Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?

ATC air traffic control

47. Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace E?

IFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

48. A pilot can contact FIS flight information service…

via radio communication

49. Which of the following options states a correct position report?

DEABC over N, 2500 ft

50. What is the meaning of the abbreviation AIREP?

Aircraft report

51. What information is provided in the general part GEN of the AIP?

Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

52. A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin PIB is a presentation of current…

NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight

53. The shown NOTAM is valid until… A102413 A LOWW B 1305211200 C 1305211400…

1305211400

54. The term aerodrome elevation is defined as…

the highest point of the landing area

55. The term runway is defined as a…

rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft

56. What does WATER PATCHES mean regarding the reported runway condition?

Patches of standing water are visible

57. What information is provided by a SNOWTAM?

Notifications of runway/taxiway/apron status with respect to snow, ice, and standing water

58. What does the reported runway condition DAMP mean?

Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible (Change of colour)

59. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

Airport unsafe, do not land

60. What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

Cleared to land

61. What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

Return to starting point

62. What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

63. How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility?

The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle

64. In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?

Rock the wings in the daytime

65. Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?

T

66. What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?

It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying Aircraft

67. According to ICAO Annex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway?

White

68. How are two parallel runways designated?

The left runway gets the suffix L, the right runway R

69. What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the centerline of a runway?

Threshold marking

70. Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

White

71. What is the meaning of DETRESFA?

Distress phase

72. Who provides search and rescue service?

Both military and civil organisations

73. Under which conditions is ALERFA triggered?

If an aircraft has not arrived within 30 minutes after its estimated time of arrival

74. Under which conditions is INCERFA triggered?

If there is uncertainty as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

75. Which meaning does the search and rescue signal X have when displayed on the ground?

Require medical assistance

76. Which meaning does the search and rescue signal V have when displayed on the ground?

Require assistance

77. How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight?

Rock the wings

78. What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation?

To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations