AIR-LAW

AIR LAW - COMPLETE ANSWERS WITH OPTIONS

1. Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?

a Certificate of aircraft registration, b Certificate of airworthiness, c Airworthiness review certificate, d EASA Form- 1, e Airplane logbook, f Appropriate papers for every crew member, g Technical logbook

• a, b, c, e, f
• b, c, d, e, f, g
• d, f, g
• a, b, e, g

2. Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions?

• Prohibited area
• Restricted area
• Dangerous area
• No-fly zone

3. Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found?

• ICAO chart 1500000
• AIP
• AIC
• NOTAM

4. A bilateral agreement under international law can be declared between…

• two states
• two airlines.
• more than two states.
• more than two airlines.

5. A multilateral agreement under international law can be declared between…

• more than two states
• two airlines.
• two states.
• more than two airlines.

6. What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA e.g. Part-FCL, Part-MED?

• They have the same status as ICAO Annexes
• They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide
• They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states
• Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding

7. Some of the objectives of EUROCONTROL are…

• air traffic control ATC over many Northern European countries in the upper airspace and air traffic flow management ATFM
• air traffic control ATC over Europe in the lower airspace and air traffic management for Europe provided by the central flow management unit CFMU.
• acceptance and transmission of flight plans FPL departing in Europe by the aeronautical information service-center AIS-C.
• flight information service FIS in all flight information regions FIR and upper flight information regions UIR.

8. Which validity does the Certificate of Airworthiness have?

• 6 months
• 12 years
• Unlimited
• 12 months

9. What is the meaning of the abbreviation ARC?

• Airworthiness Recurring Control
• Airspace Restriction Criteria
• Airworthiness Review Certificate
• Airspace Rulemaking Committee

10. What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1?

• Flight crew licensing
• Operation of aircraft
• Air traffic services.
• Rules of the air

11. A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is only valid in…

• all ICAO countries.
• the country where the license was acquired.
• the country where the license was issued
• those countries that have accepted this license on application.

12. What is the period of validity of a private pilot license PPL?

• 24 months
• 60 months
• Unlimited
• 48 months

13. What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night flights?

• At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
• At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
• At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
• At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour cross-country flight plus 10 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

14. The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is…

• 12 Months.
• 60 Months.
• 48 Months.
• 24 Months

15. In which way is a SEP land rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight time?

• A proficiency check with an examiner
• The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor
• The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor
• According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision of an ATO

16. The possession of a european PPLA entitles the holder to…

• act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation as a flight instructor.
• act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a compensation may be obtained
• act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft.
• act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board.

17. What is the meaning of the abbreviation BCMT?

• The center of the sun is 6 below the horizon and dawn is imminent
• Before entering airspace C Transponder Mandatory
• International morse code for on high seas
• It is mandatory to set the transponder to mode C or S with the squawk 7000

18. What has to be done before entering a TMZ?

• Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S
• Switch on the transponder, activate mode A, and squawk IDENT
• Request a clearance before entering
• File a flight plan before the flight

19. What is the meaning of the abbreviation SERA?

• Standardized European Rules of the Air
• Selective Radar Altimeter
• Specialized Radar Approach
• Standard European Routes of the Air.

20. What is the meaning of the abbreviation IFR?

• Instrument Meteorological Conditions
• Instrument Flight Rules
• Commercial Flight Rules
• Bad Weather Flight Rules

21. A flight is called a visual flight, if the…

• flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
• If the flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
• flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions
• visibility in flight is more than 8 km.
• visibility in flight is more than 5 km.

22. What is the meaning of the abbreviation IMC?

• Instrument meteorological conditions
• Instrument flight rules
• Inter meteorological conditions
• Instrument conditions

23. Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?

• Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodroome
• Take-off or landing at an aerodrome
• The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome
• An approach without landing at an aerodrome

24. A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite at the same altitude. Which one has to divert?

• The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority
• The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority
• Both have to divert to the right
• Both have to divert to the left.

25. What is the difference between crossing and passing regarding two aeroplane?

• When crossing, the angle between the two aeroplanes is more than 70, when passing, it is smaller
• When crossing, the angle between the two aeroplanes is less than 70, when passing, it is bigger
• If both pilots can see each other through a side window, it is called crossing
• If the difference in speed is more than 30 kt, it is called passing

26. What is the minimum height above an industrial site working with inflammables and explosives?

• 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
• 500 ft AGL
• 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft
• 2000 ft AGL

27. Which sequence is correct with regard to the rules of priority?

a Gliders, b Engine-driven aeroplanes, c Hang-gliders paragliders, d Balloons Start with the aircraft with the LOWEST priority.

• b, a, c, d
• a, b, c, d
• d, c, b, a
• d, a, c, b

28. Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one has to divert?

• Both have to divert to the right
• The heavier one has to climb
• Both have to divert to the left
• The lighter one has to climb.

29. While taxiing, two engine-driven aeroplanes face each other direct on opposite courses. Which one has to divert?

• Both have to divert to the right
• The heavier one has to divert to the right
• Both have to divert to the left
• The heavier one has to divert to the left

30. What has to be considered when entering an RMZ?

• To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact
• To obtain a clearance to enter this area
• The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000
• To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority

31. The term ceiling is defined as the…

• altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft
• height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
• height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft.
• height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

32. What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C at and above FL 100 for an aircraft operating under VFR?

• 8 km
• 5 km
• 1.5 km
• 10 km (Note: VFR in class C above FL 100 requires 8km minimum, at FL100 is 8km)

33. The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is…

• 5000 m.
• 8000 m.
• 3000 m
• 1500 m.

34. What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace B?

• Vertically 1.5 km, horizontally 300 m
• Vertically 1.0 km, horizontally 1500 ft
• Vertically 1.0 km, horizontally 300 m
• Vertically 1.5 km, horizontally 1000 m

35. What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace C for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?

• 5000 m
• 8000 m
• 3000 m
• 1500 m (Note: At FL100 and above, visibility is 8km; below FL100 is 5km)

36. What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight?

• Visual reference to the terrain
• A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m
• At least 500 m ground visibilty
• Speed not above 115 kt IAS

37. Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft, followed by a smooth turn to the left?

• You are entering a resticted area, leave the airspace immediately
• Follow me
• Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
• You are clear of any restricted or reserved airspaces, you can continue on your heading.

38. Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

• You are entering a resticted area, leave the airspace immediately
• Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
• Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield
• You may continue your flight

39. The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa…

• at 4000 ft.
• at the decision height.
• when climbing above the transition altitude
• when descending below FL 100.

40. During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be…

• local QNH
• local QFE.
• 1013.25 hPa.
• 1030.25 hPa.

41. What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?

• To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
• To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern
• To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres
• To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP

42. Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?

• 7600
• 7500
• 7700
• 7600 (Radio failure code)

43. Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes?

• A, C, R
• B, C, V
• B, R, S
• A, C, S

44. A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a…

• mode A transponder.
• pressure-decoder.
• transponder approved for airspace B.
• mode C or S transponder

45. The IDENT button on the transponder has to be used…

• without any request before entering airspace C, D or E.
• only once after a direct request by the ATC
• without any request before entering a CTA.
• three times to indicate a radio failure.

46. Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?

• ATC air traffic control
• FIS flight information service
• ALR alerting service
• AIS aeronautical information service

47. Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace E?

• VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic
• IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic
• VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
• VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic.

48. A pilot can contact FIS flight information service…

• via telephone.
• via internet.
• via radio communication
• by a personal visit.

49. Which of the following options states a correct position report?

• DEABC, N, 2500 ft
• DEABC over N in FL 2500 ft (Corrected format)
• DEABC reaching N
• DEABC over N at 35

50. What is the meaning of the abbreviation AIREP?

• Aeronautical information report
• Aircraft report
• Aeronautical instrument requirement report
• Automatic identification report

51. What information is provided in the general part GEN of the AIP?

• Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
• Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
• Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces
• Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods

52. A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin PIB is a presentation of current…

• AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
• NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight
• AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
• ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.

53. The shown NOTAM is valid until… A102413 A LOWW B 1305211200 C 1305211400 E STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.

• 21052013 1400 UTC.
• 21052014 1300 UTC.
• 13052013 1200 UTC (From series B field)
• 13102013 0000 UTC.

54. The term aerodrome elevation is defined as…

• the highest point of the apron.
• the highest point of the landing area
• the lowest point of the landing area.
• the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.

55. The term runway is defined as a…

• round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
• rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft
• rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopter.

56. What does WATER PATCHES mean regarding the reported runway condition?

• Wet surface, but no significant patches are visible
• A large part of the surface is flooded
• Patches of standing water are visible
• The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

57. What information is provided by a SNOWTAM?

• Notifications of runway/taxiway/apron status with respect to snow, ice, and standing water
• Special NOTAM, especially urgent NOTAM information
• Information which can not be listed in the AIP
• Special information on recent changes on ICAO maps.

58. What does the reported runway condition DAMP mean?

• Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible
• A large part of the surface is flooded
• Change of colour on the surface due to moisture
• The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow

59. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

• Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
• Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
• Airport unsafe, do not land
• Cleared to land

60. What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

• Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
• Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
• Airport unsafe, do not land
• Cleared to land

61. What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

• Cleared for take-off
• Return to starting point
• Clear the taxiway runway
• Cleared to taxi

62. What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

• Cleared to land
• Return to starting point
• Airport unsafe, to not land
• Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

63. How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility?

• The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.
• The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.
• The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle
• The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.

64. In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?

• Rock the wings in the daytime
• Apply some changes of the rudder
• Apply some changes of RPM
• Apply some fast pitch changes

65. Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?

• L
• A straight arrow
• T
• An angled arrow

66. What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?

• It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
• It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects
• It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying Aircraft
• Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance

67. According to ICAO Anex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway?

• Yellow
• Blue
• White
• Green.

68. How are two parallel runways designated?

• The left runway gets the suffix -1, the right runway -2
• The left runway gets the suffix L, the right runway remains unchanged
• The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
• The left runway gets the suffix L, the right runway R

69. What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically about the centerline of a runway?

• Do not touch down before them
• Do not touch down behind them
• At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
• A ground roll could be started from this position

70. Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

• White
• Red
• Green
• Blue

71. What is the meaning of DETRESFA?

• Distress phase
• Alerting phase
• Uncertainty phase
• Rescue phase

72. Who provides search and rescue service?

• Only military organisations
• Only civil organisations
• Both military and civil organisations
• International approved organisations.

73. Under which conditions is ALERFA triggered?

• If an aircraft has not arrived within 30 minutes after its estimated time of arrival
• If it is suspected that the fuel of an aircraft could be completely consumed and no landing message has been received
• If it is suspected that an aircraft could be hijacked
• If it is known that an aircraft will perform an emergency landing

74. Under which conditions is INCERFA triggered?

• If there is uncertainty as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
• If it is suspected that the fuel of an aircraft could be completely consumed and no landing message has been received
• If an aircraft has not arrived within 30 minutes after its estimated time of arrival
• If it is known that an aircraft will perform an emergency landing

75. Which meaning does the search and rescue signal X have when displayed on the ground?

• Indicates the direction to proceed
• Send a doctor
• Need food and water
• Unable to proceed

76. Which meaning does the search and rescue signal V have when displayed on the ground?

• Indicates the direction to proceed
• Serious injuries, send a doctor
• Need help
• Unable to proceed

77. How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight?

• Rock the wings
• Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times
• Push the rudder in both directions multiple times
• Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times

78. What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation?

• To determite the guilty party and draw legal consequences
• To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
• To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
• To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations